In 1776, slavery was legal and even though he spoke out against slavery, Jefferson owned hundreds of slaves. With that in mind, what do you think he meant when he wrote that "all men are created equal?" Does it mean the same thing today? If so, why. If not, what does it mean today?

Answers should be at least 150 words or more long.

Respectfully respond to two of your classmates answers. The replies should be at least 25 words or more long.